Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 18.06.2025 06:12
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Why is every human messed up in some way?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
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Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Why should the law care about what I do behind closed doors?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.